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What I was implying, is that you seem to believe that someone would file a trade mark somewhere. But why would that be necessary?Take Hyperion's settlement with Amiga Inc for example; "AmigaOS" is not a trade mark in its own, AFAIK. I'd say there is *only one mark*, and that is "Amiga". It is owned by Amiga Inc, and no-one else. What Hyperion seems to have, is *merely an agreement* stipulating that "OK, we (Amiga Inc) will not sue you if you use our Amiga mark in the following ways 'AmigaOS', 'Amiga OS', 'AmigaONE', 'Amiga ONE', when marketing your OS4". AFAIK, no-one would need to file anything anywhere in order to make such an agreement, and I think Commodore has a similar deal!
